Q1.
According to World Health Organisation, a reproductively healthy individual possesses
Q2.
Which country commenced the action plans at national level to achieve total reproductive health as a social goal?
Q3.
Consider the following statements:
a. In India, family planning program was initiated in 1982.
b. Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) program is an improved version of family planning programs.
Select the correct option
Q4.
In what way awareness can be created among people about reproduction related aspects?
a. Through audio-visual and print media advertisements.
b. Creating fear among adolescents about sexual practices.
c. Introduction of sex education at school.
Select the most appropriate option
Q5.
While providing sex education to adolescents at school, which attribute would be least significant?
Q6.
RCH programs helps to curb
Q7.
Statutory ban on amniocentesis helps to check or prevent
Q8.
Consider the following statements:
a. In amniocentesis, small sample is taken from the foetus blood.
b. Foetal sex can be determined through amniocentesis by studying the chromosomal pattern in amniotic fluid.
Select the correct option.
Q9.
Amniocentesis can be used to detect all the listed diseases except
Q10.
In the context of amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?
Q11.
Assertion: Sex education is provided to adolescents at school only.
Reason: Sex education is introduced to teach adolescents about myths related of sexual practices only.
Q12.
Assertion: Amniocentesis helps to detect foetal disorders during early pregnancy.
Reason: Jaundice can be prevented in foetus by amniocentesis.
Q13.
The trend of world’s population growth from the year 2000 to 2011 is
Q14.
Match the following columns.
| Column I (Year) | Column II (World population) |
|---|
| (a) 2011 | (1) 2000 million |
| (b) 1900 | (2) 7.2 billion |
| (c) 2000 | (3) 6 billion |
Q15.
Consider the following statements.
a. The world population increased significantly in between the years 1900–2000 as compared to the years 2000–2011.
b. Increased health services had an explosive impact on world’s population growth.
Select the correct option
Q16.
According to the 2011 census report, the population growth rate of India was
Q17.
Under what circumstances, the growth of population declines?
a. Increased number of people in reproducible age.
b. Decreased infant mortality rate.
c. Increased maternal mortality rate.
Select the most appropriate option.
Q18.
A population with declined infant mortality rate would show
Q19.
Which among the following measure can be opted to check the population growth rate?
Q20.
Consider the following statements.
a. ‘One child norm’ is a threat to population growth rate of India.
b. Statutory raising of marriageable age of males and females check the population growth rate.
Select the correct option.
Q21.
Marriageable age of males and female in India is
Q22.
An ideal contraceptive should have all the listed characteristics, except
Q23.
Consider the following statements:
(a) Natural method of contraception is a traditional method to prevent pregnancy.
(b) The basic principle of natural method of contraception is to avoid the contact between ovum and sperms
Select the correct option.
Q24.
In periodic abstinence method
Q25.
During which period of a typical menstrual cycle of 28 days, coitus should be avoided to prevent conception naturally?
Q26.
How does coitus interruptus method is practiced by couples?
Q27.
In lactational amenorrhea, chances of conception are nil during
Q28.
Match the following columns.
| Column I (Natural methods of contraception) | Column II (Characteristics) |
|---|
| (a) Coitus interruptus | (1) Avoid intercourse during ovulation |
| (b) Lactational amenorrhea | (2) Avoid insemination into vagina |
| (c) Periodic abstinence | (3) Ovum is not available for fertilisation |
Q29.
Select the incorrect statement.
Q30.
The barrier method of contraception
(a) can be used by males only
(b) prevents physical meeting of sperm and ovum
(c) are used at the time of coitus
Select the most appropriate option.
Q31.
Select the incorrect statement regarding condoms.
Q32.
Use of condoms can help to prevent
Q33.
What is the similarity between vaults and diaphragms?
Q34.
Consider the following statements:
(a) Cervical caps and vaults are not cost effective as they cannot be reused.
(b) Contraceptive efficiency of vaults and cervical caps can be increased by using spermicidal creams along with these barriers.
Select the correct option
Q35.
Select the correct statement regarding intra uterine devices (IUDs).
Q36.
Match the following columns.
| Column I | Column II |
|---|
| (a) LNG 20 | (1) Hormone-releasing IUD |
| (b) Lippes loop | (2) Copper releasing IUD |
| (c) Multiload 375 | (3) Non medicated IUD |
Q37.
All the listed IUDs release copper ions except
Q38.
What is significance of copper ions in contraception?
Q39.
Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.
Q40.
Which of the following is a correct statement?
Q41.
The hormones used for the purpose of contraception in pills and IUDs are
Q42.
For the effective results of contraception pills, they should be taken
Q43.
Consider the following statements.
(a) Oral contraceptives inhibit ovulation and implantation to induce contraception.
(b) Menstrual flow does not occur in females after taking oral contraceptives.
Select the correct option.
Q44.
Select the incorrect statement regarding ‘Saheli’.
Q45.
The contraceptive ‘saheli’
Q46.
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding implants?
Q47.
All the listed contraceptives are effective during emergency to avoid pregnancy, except
Q48.
Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone?
Q49.
Consider the following statements.
(a) Emergency contraceptives are taken within 72 hours of coitus to avoid pregnancy.
(b) Sterilisation is the terminal method to prevent any pregnancy as it is irreversible.
Select the correct option.
Q50.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
Q51.
Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
Q52.
The semen of male after vasectomy
Q53.
Among the listed options, contraception is achieved through
Q54.
Which of the following diagram depict vasectomy accurately?
Q55.
Assertion: Menstruation does not occur during the intense period of lactation.
Reason: Chances of conception are higher after 1–2 months following parturition.
Q56.
Assertion: Use of condoms can prevent the transmission of AIDS.
Reason: AIDS is a fluid-transmitted disease.
Q57.
Assertion: Emergency contraceptives contain high level of steroidal preparation.
Reason: Saheli is an emergency contraceptive.
Q58.
Assertion: After vasectomy, sperms are not found in the semen or ejaculate.
Reason: Vas deferens is cut and tied in vasectomy.
Q59.
Medical termination of pregnancy is
Q60.
Consider the following statements.
(a) One-fifth of total number of conceived pregnancies in a year, all over the world are terminated through MTP.
(b) MTP restrictions help to check illegal female foeticide in India.
Select the correct option.
Q61.
Government of India legalised MTP in the year
Q62.
To reduce the incidences of illegal abortions, recent MTP (Amendment) Act in India was enacted in
Q63.
According to MTP Act 2017, a pregnancy may be terminated
Q64.
On what grounds, pregnancy of more than 12 weeks is terminated through MTP in India?
Q65.
MTP is considered safe upto
Q66.
A pregnant woman was denied for undergoing MTP as she was not having opinion documents from two registered medical practitioners. The duration of her pregnancy might be
Q67.
Select the correct statement regarding MTP.
(a) It is carried out up to third trimester of pregnancy.
(b) It is always surgical.
(c) It is widely used as a method of contraception.
(d) It requires the assistance of registered medical practitioner.
Select the most appropriate option
Q68.
Assertion: MTP helps to get rid of unwanted pregnancies due to unprotected intercourse.
Reason: MTPs are considered safe up to 28 weeks of pregnancy.
Q69.
Assertion: Ban on amniocentesis helped to reduce the incidences of MTP in India.
Reason: Amniocentesis helps to determine the sex of unborn child.
Q70.
Sexually transmitted diseases are alternatively known as
Q72.
Among the given options, which set represents sexually transmitted infections (STI) only?
Q73.
Consider the following statements.
(a) AIDS and Hepatitis B are STIs which are caused by virus.
(b) Gonorrhoea and syphilis are caused by bacteria.
Select the correct option.
Q74.
Which among the following STIs can be transmitted by blood transfusion and sharing of infected needles with infected person?
Q75.
A pregnant lady was suffering from a STI and various tests confirmed that her baby has also contracted the disease. The pregnant lady must be suffering from
Q76.
Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable?
Q77.
The incidences of STDs are more frequent
Q78.
Consider the following statements.
(a) Sexually transmitted diseases can be cured completely if detected early and treated properly.
(b) Early symptoms of STIs include itching, fluid discharge and swelling in genital areas.
Select the correct option.
Q79.
The consequences of delayed treatment of STIs include
(1) ectopic pregnancy
(2) still births
(3) pelvic inflammatory diseases
(4) uncontrolled growth of cells
Select the most appropriate option.
Q80.
Match the following sexually transmitted diseases in Column-I with their causative agent in Column II and select the correct option.
| Column I | Column II |
|---|
| (a) Gonorrhea | (1) HIV |
| (b) Syphilis | (2) Neisseria |
| (c) Genital Warts | (3) Treponema |
| (d) AIDS | (4) Human papilloma virus |
Q81.
What measures can be taken to prevent STDs among population?
Q82.
Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases do not specially affect reproductive organs?
Q83.
Assertion: Gonorrhoea spreads through infected needles during blood transfusion.
Reason: Gonorrhoea cannot be cured completely.
Q84.
Assertion: AIDS can be transmitted through body fluids of affected individual.
Reason: Hepatitis B virus can be found in blood and semen of affected individual.
Q85.
Consider the following statements.
(a) An infertile couple is unable to produce children due to immunological disorders only.
(b) In human population, males are always fertile while females are either fertile or infertile.
Select the correct option
Q86.
How does assisted reproductive techniques, (ART) help an infertile couple to have children?
Q88.
Where does fertilisation occur in case of IVF?
Q89.
In test tube baby program, embryo transfer
Q90.
Which among the listed ARTs are included under embryo transfer (ET) technique?
Q91.
A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this technique is
Q92.
Select the correct statement.
Q93.
Consider the following statements.
(a) Embryo formed by in-vivo fertilisation could be used in intra uterine transfer.
(b) Fully formed embryo is transferred into the fundus region of uterus in ZIFT.
Select the correct option
Q94.
Which ART a woman should adept if she does not ovulate or produce a viable egg?
Q95.
Match the following columns.
| Column I | Column II |
|---|
| (a) ZIFT | (1) Transfer of ovum into fallopian tube |
| (b) GIFT | (2) Transfer of embryo into the uterus |
| (c) IUT | (3) Transfer of embryo into fallopian tube |
Q97.
In which technique, sperm is injected directly into the ovum in the laboratory?
Q98.
Under what circumstances, artificial insemination could be employed?
Q99.
In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation?
Q100.
In artificial insemination, sperms are transferred into
Q101.
How intra uterine insemination (IUI) differ from intra uterine transfer (IUT)?
Q102.
Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as
Q103.
Assertion: In all ART, fertilisation occurs outside the female’s body.
Reason: Infertile couples cannot produce gametes.
Q104.
Assertion: ICSI technique is different from AI.
Reason: ICSI is carried out in laboratory.