Q1.
Which of the following statements is correct?
Q2.
Purines found both in DNA and RNA are
Q3.
The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates that
Q4.
In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are
Q5.
The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C.
Q6.
DNA mRNA C Proposed by Protein A B The figure gives an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill the blanks A, B and C.
Q7.
What are the structures called that give an appearance as beads-on-string in the chromosomes when viewed under electron microscope?
Q8.
Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular biology?
Q9.
The 3′ - 5′ phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide chain serve to join
Q10.
Which one of the following statements about the particular entity is true?
Q11.
In the DNA molecule,
Q12.
Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category mentioned against it?
Q13.
One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately
Q14.
Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that
Q15.
Which one of the following makes use of RNA template to synthesise DNA?
Q16.
Which one of the following hydrolyses internal phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain?
Q17.
The following ratio is generally constant for a given species:
Q18.
In a DNA percentage of thymine is 20% then what will be percentage of guanine?
Q19.
Length of one loop of B-DNA
Q20.
DNA is mainly found in
Q21.
In prokaryotes, the genetic material is
Q22.
In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association is as per which of the following pair?
Q23.
The eukaryotic genome differs from the prokaryotic genome because
Q24.
Genes are packaged into a bacterial chromosome by
Q25.
Radiotracer technique shows that DNA is in
Q26.
Nucleosome core is made of
Q27.
A DNA with unequal nitrogen bases would most probably be
Q28.
Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by
Q29.
An octamer of 4 histones complexed with DNA forms
Q30.
The experimental proof for semi-conservative replication of DNA was first shown in a
Q31.
Select the correct match.
Q32.
The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of
Q33.
Taylor conducted the experiments to prove semi-conservative mode of chromosome replication on
Q34.
A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except
Q35.
Transformation was discovered by
Q36.
The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material came from the studies on a
Q37.
Semi-conservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in
Q38.
Transformation experiment was first performed on which bacteria?
Q39.
The Pneumococcus experiment proves that
Q40.
DNA synthesis can be specifically measured by estimating the incorporation of radio-labelled
Q41.
The transforming principle of Pneumococcus as found out by Avery, MacLeod and McCarty was
Q42.
Who proved that DNA is basic genetic material?
Q43.
Escherichia coli fully labelled with 15N is allowed to grow in 14N medium. The two strands of DNA molecule of the first generation bacteria have
Q44.
Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA?
Q45.
Similarity in DNA and RNA is that
Q46.
During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate
Q47.
During replication of a bacterial chromosome DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin site and
Q48.
Method of DNA replication in which two strands of DNA separate and synthesise new strands is called
Q49.
There are special proteins that help to open up DNA double helix in front of the replication fork. These proteins are
Q50.
During DNA replication, the strands separate by
Q51.
Experimental material in the study of DNA replication has been
Q53.
Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.
Q54.
What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following stretch of DNA? 3′ATGCATGCATGCATG5′ TEMPLATE STRAND 5′ TACGTACGTACGTAC3′ CODING STRAND
Q55.
Match the following RNA polymerase with their transcribed products:
Q56.
Select the correct statement.
Q57.
AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
Q58.
Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell?
Q59.
Spliceosomes are not found in cells of
Q60.
The equivalent of a structural gene is
Q61.
Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?
Q62.
DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the
Q63.
Select the correct option.
Q64.
Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is called
Q65.
If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the complementary RNA strand sequence?
Q66.
Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesised in
Q67.
Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA?
Q68.
Removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of
Q69.
Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?
Q70.
In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicing and RNA capping take place inside the
Q71.
One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was postulated by
Q72.
Telomerase is an enzyme which is a
Q73.
During transcription holoenzyme RNA polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and the DNA assumes a saddle like structure at that point. What is that sequence called?
Q74.
Which form of RNA has a structure resembling clover leaf?
Q75.
During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand that is being coded is ATACG then the nucleotide sequence in the mRNA would be
Q76.
During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called
Q77.
Which of the following reunites the exon segments after RNA splicing?
Q78.
Exon part of mRNAs have code for
Q79.
mRNA is synthesised on DNA template in which direction?
Q80.
Gene and cistron words are sometimes used synonymously because
Q81.
Types of RNA polymerase required in nucleus of eukaryotes for RNA synthesis
Q83.
In three dimensional view the molecule of tRNA is
Q84.
Genes that are involved in turning on or off the transcription of a set of structural genes are called
Q85.
DNA elements, which can switch their position, are called
Q86.
The maximum formation of mRNA occurs in
Q87.
If the sequence of bases in DNA is ATTCGATG, then the sequence of bases in its transcript will be
Q88.
In split genes, the coding sequences are called
Q89.
The process of transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA/formation of RNA from DNA is
Q90.
If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10^9 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately
Q91.
Under which of the following conditions there will be no change in the reading frame of following mRNA? 5 AACAGCGGUGCUAUU 3
Q92.
Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin by recombinant DNA technology?
Q93.
If there are 999 bases in an RNA that code for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?
Q94.
Which one of the following is the starter codon?
Q95.
Which of the following is not a property of the genetic code?
Q96.
The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code, is its being
Q97.
Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a triplet?
Q98.
What is not true for genetic code?
Q99.
Which one of the following pairs of codons is correctly matched with their function or the signal for the particular amino acid?
Q100.
After a mutation at a genetic locus the character of an organism changes due to change in
Q101.
In mutational event, when adenine is replaced by guanine, it is a case of
Q102.
What would happen if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU) is mutated to UAA?
Q103.
Which one of the following triplet codes, is correctly matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein synthesis or as start or stop codon?
Q104.
Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the
Q105.
In the genetic code dictionary, how many codons are used to code for all the 20 essential amino acids?
Q106.
Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types of amino acid. It is called
Q107.
Change in sequence of nucleotide in DNA is called
Q108.
Which of the following is initiation codon?
Q109.
Initiation codon in eukaryotes is
Q110.
What base is responsible for hot spots for spontaneous point mutations?
Q111.
The codons causing chain termination are
Q112.
Which of the following serves as a terminal codon?
Q113.
If the DNA codons are ATG ATG ATG and a cytosine base is inserted at the beginning, then which of the following will result?
Q114.
Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in an exposed position of
Q115.
Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in eukaryotes) is
Q116.
Khorana first deciphered the triplet codons of
Q117.
In the genetic dictionary, there are 64 codons as
Q118.
Genetic code consists of
Q119.
The first phase of translation is
Q120.
Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as
Q121.
A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as
Q122.
Polysome is formed by
Q123.
The two sub-units of ribosome remain united at a critical ion level of
Q124.
Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein synthesis?
Q125.
Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of
Q126.
Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products.
(A) i gene (i) β-galactosidase
(B) z gene (ii) Permease
(C) a gene (iii) Repressor
(D) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
Select the correct option.
Q127.
Select the correct match.
Q128.
All of the following are part of an operon except
Q129.
Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?
Q130.
DNA fingerprinting refers to
Q131.
Using imprints from a plate with complete medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you can select streptomycin resistant mutants and prove that such mutations do not originate as adaptation. These imprints need to be used
Q132.
Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs
Q133.
During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in
Q134.
The RNA that pick up specific amino acid from amino acid pool in the cytoplasm to ribosome during protein synthesis is called
Q135.
Which of the following step of translation does not consume a high energy phosphate bond?
Q136.
Protein synthesis in an animal cell, takes place
Q137.
In protein synthesis, the polymerisation of amino acids involves three steps. Which one of the following is not involved in the polymerisation of protein?
Q138.
Because most of the amino acids are represented by more than one codon, the genetic code is
Q139.
The process of translation is
Q140.
Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is
Q141.
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
Q142.
Which enzyme will be produced in a cell if there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene?
Q143.
In an inducible operon, the genes are
Q144.
Select the two correct statements out of the four (i-iv) statements given below about lac operon.
(i) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it
(ii) In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds with the operator region
(iii) The z-gene codes for permease
(iv) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod
Q145.
The lac operon consists of
Q146.
E.coli cells with a mutated z gene of the lac operon cannot grow in medium containing only lactose as the source of energy because
Q147.
What does "lac" refer to in what we call the lac operon?
Q148.
Jacob and Monod studied lactose metabolism in E. coli and proposed operon concept. Operon concept is applicable for
Q149.
In E. coli, during lactose metabolism repressor binds to
Q150.
In negative operon,
Q151.
In operon concept, regulator gene functions as
Q152.
The wild type E.coli cells are growing in normal medium with glucose. They are transferred to a medium containing only lactose as sugar. Which of the following changes take place?
Q153.
The lac operon is an example of
Q154.
An environmental agent, which triggers transcription from an operon, is a
Q155.
Lac operon in E. coli, is induced by
Q156.
Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to
Q157.
Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material from largest to smallest
Q158.
Satellite DNA is important because it
Q159.
Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?
Q160.
One of the most frequently used techniques in DNA fingerprinting is
Q161.
What is it that forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting?