Q1.
Streaming of cytoplasm/cyclosis is seen in –
Q2.
Which of the following statements is correct?
Q3.
I. Paramecium employs cilia for pushing food in cytopharynx and in locomotion
II. Hydra takes help of tentacles for both food capturing and locomotion
III. All locomotion's are movements and vice-versa
IV. Methods of locomotion vary with habitats and the demands of situation
V. Ciliated epithelium is found in respiratory tract, renal tubules and reproductive tracts
Which of the above statements is false?
Q4.
Which of the following statements is false?
Q5.
Which of the following statements about the skeletal muscles is correct?
Q6.
Which of the following statements about visceral muscles is correct?
Q7.
Cardiac/heart muscles are -
Q8.
Which of the following statements is false?
Q9.
The source of Ca+2 for the muscle is –
Q10.
The fascia surrounding a muscle is made up of -
Q11.
Contractile fibrils of muscles are called –
Q12.
Myofibrils show alternate dark and light bands in -
Q13.
Select the true statement(s) -
Q14.
Which is the smallest one?
Q15.
Match Column I with Column II –
| Column I | Column II |
|---|
| A. Structural and functional unit of a myofibril | I. H-zone |
| B. Protein of thin filament | II. Myosin |
| C. Protein of thick filament | III. Sarcomere |
| D. The central part of thick filament not overlapped by thin filament | IV. Actin |
Q16.
Z-line divides the myofibrils into –
Q17.
Sarcomere is the area between –
Q18.
Light bands (thin filaments) contain actin and are called -
Q19.
Dark bands (thick filaments) contain myosin and are called -
Q20.
Which of the following statements about the striated muscles is false?
I. In the centre of each I-band is an elastic fibre (Z-line) which bisects it
II. Thin filaments are firmly attached to the Z-line
III. M-line is a fibrous membrane in the middle of A-bands
IV. A sarcomere comprises one full A-bands and 2 half I-bands
Q21.
The region between the ends of the A-bands of 2-adjoining sarcomeres is called –
Q22.
Choose the letter from the figure that most appropriately corresponds to the structure –
I. A-band
II. I-band
III. Sarcomere
IV. H-zone
V. Myosin
VI. Actin, Troponin, Tropomyosin
VII. Z- line
Q23.
An individual sarcomere consist of-
Q24.
Which of the following statements about the molecular arrangement of actin and myosin in myofibrils is false?
I. Each actin (thin filament) is made of 2F (filamentous) actins.
II. F-actin is the polymer of G (globular) actin.
III. 2F- actins are twisted into a helix
IV. Two strands of tropomyosin (protein) lie in the grooves of F-actin.
V. Troponin molecules (complex proteins) are distributed at regular intervals on the tropomyosin
VI. Troponin forms the head of the myosin molecule
VII. The myosin is a polymerised protein
Q25.
One myosin filament in the myofibril of skeletal muscle fibres is surrounded by how many actin filaments -
Q26.
The cross bridges of the sarcomere in skeletal muscle are made up of –
Q27.
The functions of tropomyosin in skeletal muscle include -
Q28.
Tropomyosin is moved by which of following proteins -
Q29.
Ca+2 bind _________ in the skeletal muscles and leads to exposure of the binding site for _______ on the filament ___________.
Q30.
Following is the figure of actin (thin) filaments. Identify A, B and C.
Q31.
The above figure is related with myosin monomer (meromyosin). Identify A to C -
Q32.
Which of the following statements is false?
Q33.
The action potential that triggers a muscle contraction travels deep within the muscle cell by means of _________.
Q34.
ATP provides energy for muscle contraction by allowing for-
Q35.
A motor unit is best described as –
Q36.
Motor end plate is a -
Q37.
Electrical excitation in a muscle fibre most directly causes -
Q38.
The energy for muscle contraction is most directly obtained from -
Q39.
According to the sliding filament theory –
Q40.
Put the following phrases in proper order to describe what occurs at the neuromuscular junction to trigger muscle contraction.
I. Receptor sites on sarcolemma.
II. Nerve impulse.
III. Release of Ca+2 from sarcoplasmic reticulum
IV. The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is released
V. Sarcomere shorten
VI. Synaptic cleft
VII. Spread of impulses over sarcolemma on T-tubules
Q41.
Go through the following diagram describing muscle contraction.
Now identify A to E.
Q42.
How does the troponin-tropomyosin complex affect cross-bridge cycling?
Q43.
Relaxation of muscle is due to –
Q44.
The diagrams given above show 3 different condition of sarcomeres. Identify these conditions -
Q45.
When a skeletal muscle shortens during contraction which of these statements is false?
Q46.
The muscle band that remains unchanged during muscle contraction and relaxation of the skeletal muscle is –
Q47.
Which of the following statements is correct?
Q48.
The compound or pigment acting as an oxygen store in skeletal muscles is –
Q49.
I. Number of mitochondria less.
II. Number of mitochondria more
III. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is abundant
IV. Myoglobin content high
V. Sarcoplasmic reticulum moderate
VI. Aerobic muscles
VII. Depend on anaerobic respiration for energy
VIII. Less myoglobin content
A. Red muscles
B. White muscles
Identify above (I to VIII) traits as characteristic of A and B types of muscles-
Q50.
Skeletal system consists of -
Q51.
Bone has a very hard matrix due to presence of-
Q52.
Cartilage has slightly pliable matrix due to -
Q53.
How many bones make up the human skeleton?
Q54.
Number of bones in human axial skeleton is -
Q55.
Match Column I with Column II –
| Column I | Column II
(Number of bones) |
|---|
| A. Cranium/Brainbox | I. 29 |
| B. Skull (Cranial and facial bones) | II. 8 |
| C. Face | III. 14 |
| D. Hind limb | IV. 12 pairs |
| E. Ribs | V. 30 |
Q56.
Hyoid/Tongue bone is -
Q57.
A normal human being has how many ear ossicle?
Q58.
Which one of the following is not included under ear ossicles -
Q59.
Human Cranium has small protuberance(s) at the posterior end called __________ and ____ in number. that articulates with first vertebra (atlas vertebra)-
Q61.
Which of the following statements about human vertebral column is false?
Q62.
Human adult vertebral formula is-
Q63.
Which of the following vertebra in adult human are fused ones?
Q64.
Which of the following is not the function of vertebral column?
Q65.
Which of the following is not correct about sternum?
Q66.
Each typical rib is a thin flat bone connected ____ to the vertebral column and ___________ to the sternum-
Q68.
Match Column I with Column II –
| Column I | Column II |
|---|
| A. True ribs | I. 3 pairs |
| B. False ribs | II. 2 pairs |
| C. Floating ribs | III. 7 pairs |
Q69.
Match Column I with Column II –
| Column I | Column II |
|---|
| A. False ribs | I. 1st to 7th pair |
| B. True ribs | II. 11th and 12th pair |
| C. Floating ribs | III. 8th to 10th pair |
| D. Sternum | IV. One |
Q70.
Identify the ribs -
a. Ribs are attached to the sternum ventrally and to the vertebrae dorsally.
b. Ribs are attached to sternum through costal cartilage (hyaline) of 7th rib
c. Ribs are not attached to sternum
I. True ribs
II. False ribs
III. Floating ribs
Q71.
Which of the following ribs are called vertebrochondral ribs?
Q72.
Rib cage is formed by all except –
Q73.
Each limb (upper or lower) consists of how many bones –
Q74.
The accompanied figure is rib cage. Identify A, B and C respectively-
Q75.
Number of bones in human appendicular skeleton is -
Q76.
Number of bone in each upper limb is –
Q77.
Phalangeal/digital formula for human hand/foot is-
Q78.
The hand contains ____ carpals (wrist bones), ____ metacarpals (palm bones), and ___ phalanges.
Q79.
The accompanied diagram shows right pectoral girdle and upper arm (frontal view). Identify A to G
Q80.
An acromion process is characteristically found in -
Q81.
The shoulder blade is large triangular bone situated in the dorsal part of the thorax between the 2nd and the 7th ribs. It is called -
Q82.
For articulation of head of humerus a depression found in scapula is called –
Q83.
Which of the following statement is correct?
Q84.
Which of the following statements is false?
Q85.
Which one of the following is the longest bone in human?
Q86.
Human foot consists of 26 bones. What are the number of tarsals (ankle bones), metatarsals and phalanges?
Q87.
A cup shaped bone covering knee ventrally is called -
Q88.
Study the accompanying figure. Identify A, B, C and D –
Q89.
Acetabulum occurs in -
Q90.
Pelvic girdle (hip girdle) is composed ____ coxal (hip) bones-
Q91.
Pelvic girdle consists of-
Q92.
Two halves of pelvic girdle articulate ventrally at a fibrocartilaginous joint called -
Q93.
Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of 3 bones named as -
Q94.
Which of the following statements about the joints is false?
Q95.
Match Column I with Column II –
| Column I | Column II |
|---|
| A. Hinge joint | I. Between humerus and pectoral girdle |
| B. Pivot joint | II. Between carpals and Metacarpals of thumb |
| C. Gliding joint | III. Between the carpals |
| D. Saddle joint | IV. Between atlas and axis |
| E. Ball and socket joint | V. Knee joint |
Q96.
Which of the following statements is correct?
Q97.
Joint between bones in the form of sutures of human skull is -
Q98.
Which of the following statements is correct?
Q99.
A disease associated with joint is –
Q100.
Gout is the inflammation of joints due to accumulation of -
Q101.
I. Age-related disorder characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fracture
II. Causative factor deficiency of estrogen is common.
The above characters are associated with –
Q102.
Myasthenia is an ____ disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles -
Q103.
Tetany is the rapid spasm in muscles due to –
Q104.
Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles due to genetic disorder is called –