Q1.
From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask.
Q2.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?
I. Formation of protobionts
II. Synthesis of organic monomers
III. Synthesis of organic polymers
IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems
Q3.
Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life.
(A) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
(B) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?
Q4.
Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and microspheres) as envisaged in the abiogenic origin of life?
Q5.
The concept of chemical evolution is based on
Q6.
Which of the following amino acids was not found to be synthesised in Miller’s experiment?
Q7.
Which one of the following experiments suggests that simplest living organisms could not have originated spontaneously from non-living matter?
Q8.
According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth?
Q9.
There is no life on moon due to the absence of
Q10.
Most abundant organic compound on earth is
Q11.
1st life on earth was
Q12.
Flippers of penguins and dolphins are examples of
Q13.
The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
Q14.
Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option.
Q15.
Which of the following structures is homologous to the wing of a bird?
Q16.
Analogous structures are a result of
Q17.
The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect are
Q18.
Industrial melanism is an example of
Q19.
Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of
Q20.
Which one of the following are analogous structures?
Q21.
The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge, is called
Q22.
The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of
Q23.
Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and divergent evolution?
Q24.
Peripatus is a connecting link between
Q25.
In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) the black-coloured form became dominant over the light-coloured form in England during industrial revolution. This is an example of
Q26.
Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are examples of
Q27.
Which one of the following pairs of items correctly belongs to the category of organs mentioned against it?
Q28.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q29.
When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed
Q30.
An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of
Q31.
Which one of the following sequences was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution?
Q32.
Darwin's theory of pangenesis shows similarity with theory of inheritance of acquired characters then what shall be correct according to it?
Q33.
Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action?
(1) Darwin's Finches of Galapagos islands.
(2) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(3) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(4) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.
Q34.
Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by
Q35.
Given below are four statements (A-D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in two statements.
Statements:
(A) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and are the results of (i) evolution.
(B) Miller showed that CH4, H2, NH3 and (i) when exposed to electric discharge in a flask resulted in formation of (ii) .
(C) Vermiform appendix is a (i) organ and an (ii) evidence of evolution.
(D) According to Darwin evolution took place due to (i) and (ii) of the fittest.
Q36.
The correct sequence for the manufacture of molecules/organic compounds on the primitive earth is
Q37.
The first organisms were
Q38.
Which was absent in the atmosphere at the time of origin of life?
Q39.
Which one of the following is not a living fossil?
Q40.
Which of the following is the relatively most accurate method for dating of fossils?
Q41.
Age of fossils in the past was generally determined by radio-carbon method and other methods involve radioactive elements found in the rocks. More precise methods, which were used recently and led to the revision of the evolutionary periods for different groups of organisms, includes
Q42.
Convergent evolution is illustrated by
Q43.
Industrial melanism is an example of
Q44.
Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structures?
Q45.
Which of the following are homologous organs?
Q46.
Sequence of which of the following is used to know the phylogeny?
Q47.
Half life period of 14C is
Q48.
In Lederberg's replica plating experiment what shall be used to obtain streptomycin resistant strain?
Q49.
Similarities in organism with different genotype indicates
Q50.
Which is not a vestigial organ in man?
Q51.
Phenomenon of Industrial melanism demonstrates
Q52.
Which of the following are homologous organs?
Q53.
Evolutionary convergence is characterised by
Q54.
Which of the following is the correct group of vestigial organs in man?
Q55.
The change of the lighter-coloured variety of peppered moth (Biston betularia) to its darker variety (Biston carbonaria) is due to
Q56.
The homologous organs are those that show similarity in
Q57.
The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of all vertebrates, supports the theory of
Q58.
The earliest fossil form, in the phylogeny of horse, is
Q59.
Which of the following is a pair of homologous organs?
Q60.
Evolutionary convergence is development of
Q62.
Basic principles of embryonic development were pronounced by
Q63.
The finch species of Galapagos islands are grouped according to their food sources. Which of the following is not a finch food?
Q64.
Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as
Q65.
Darwin's finches are a good example of
Q66.
The Finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of
Q67.
Adaptive radiation refers to
Q68.
Which evidence of evolution is related to Darwin's finches?
Q69.
The diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for
Q70.
Humming birds and Hawk illustrate
Q71.
Which one of the following scientist's name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him?
Q72.
Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin's concept of natural selection in organic evolution?
Q73.
Darwin in his "Natural Selection Theory" did not believe in any role of which one of the following in organic evolution?
Q74.
Which of the following is most important for speciation?
Q75.
Some bacteria are able to grow in streptomycin containing medium due to
Q76.
Reason of diversity in living being is
Q77.
Species occurring in different geographical area are called as
Q78.
Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that
Q79.
"Continuity of germplasm" theory was given by
Q80.
Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was given by
Q81.
Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries, are
Q82.
According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is
Q83.
The idea of mutations was brought forth by
Q84.
De Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution while working on
Q85.
A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population?
Q86.
In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place?
Q87.
Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents
Q88.
Genetic drift operates in
Q89.
In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by
Q90.
In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is
Q91.
The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by
Q92.
Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as
Q93.
Random unidirectional change in allele frequencies that occurs by chance in all populations and especially in small populations is known as
Q94.
Genetic variation in a population arises due to
Q95.
At a particular locus, frequency of A allele is 0.6 and that of a is 0.4. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?
Q96.
Which of the following is not true for a species?
Q97.
Random genetic drift in a population probably results from
Q98.
Dinosaurs dominated the world in which of the following geological eras?
Q99.
Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is characterised by
Q100.
Match the hominids with their correct brain size.
(A) Homo habilis (i) 900cc
(B) Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1350 cc
(C) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800cc
(D) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400cc
Q101.
The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is
Q102.
What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?
Q103.
The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, with short stature, heavy eye brows, retreating fore heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait and stooped posture was
Q104.
According to fossils discovered up to present time origin and evolution of man started from
Q105.
Which of the following is closest relative of man?
Q106.
Homo sapiens have evolved in
Q107.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Q108.
The age of the fossil of Dryopithecus on the geological time scale is
Q109.
Common origin of man and chimpanzee is best shown by
Q110.
Which of the following is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens?
Q111.
The first domesticated animal by primitive man was